You are determined to ruin this thread @Beelzebub
Anyway, let this be the last word on the matter, @nudge will probably like the last part of this...
From the Belgian standpoint, the popularity of the term "french fries" is explained as "French gastronomic hegemony" into which the cuisine of Belgium was assimilated, because of a lack of understanding coupled with a shared language and geographic proximity of the countries.[38] The Belgian journalist Jo Gérard [fr] claimed that a 1781 family manuscript recounts that potatoes were deep-fried prior to 1680 in the Meuse valley, as a substitute for frying fish when the rivers were frozen.[29][35] Gérard never produced the manuscript that supports this claim, and "the historical value of this story is open to question".[42] In any case, it is unrelated to the later history of the french fry, as the potato did not arrive in the region until around 1735. In any case, given 18th-century economic conditions: "it is absolutely unthinkable that a peasant could have dedicated large quantities of fat for cooking potatoes. At most they were sautéed in a pan".[43]